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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 07:12

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What factors contributed to The Beatles' bitterness?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

I'm very sick. 72 years old. I thinking I'm losing my mind. My dead friend told me it's going to be okay. I could feel him. There is more…I don't know what but more.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Have you ever seen your wife being fucked?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.